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SAMPLE PAPER
NATIONAL
TALENT HUNT EXAM
2012 Science & Mathematics Mental Ability & General Knowledge
Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sector-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075. Ph.: (011) 47623456
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Time : 2 Hours
MM : 480
Part – I
Science & Mathematics SECTION - A : SCIENCE Choose the correct answer : 1.
The I-V graph of four resistors A, B, C and D is given below. If all the four resistors are of the same length and same material, then the resistor having the minimum cross-sectional area is
3.
4.
A B C
I
D 5.
2.
(1) A
V (2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Bio-gas is rich in (1) Methane
(2) Propane
(3) Ethane
(4) Butane
_______ between the different layers of water in the ocean is used to produced energy in OTEC plants. (1) Tidal energy
(2) Temperature difference
(3) Waves
(4) Depth
An AC generator can be converted into a DC generator by replacing (1) Its armature with a coil (2) Its concave magnets
A wire PQ of length l and area of cross-section A is connected to a supply of V volt as shown in the figure given below.
(3) Its slip rings with split rings (4) Two brushes with four brushes 6.
V
If an alternating current changes its direction after 1 s, then its frequency is 120 (1) 50 Hz (2) 45 Hz
every
P
Q
A
(3) 60 Hz 7.
V If the length of the wire is doubled and its area of cross-section halved, then the reading of the ammeter and the voltmeter respectively
(4) 70 Hz
In the following circuit, the equivalent resistance between points A and B is
1.5
1.5
1
A 3
(1) Increases, increases (2) Increases, remains the same
3
(3) Decreases, remains the same
B (1) 1.5 Ω
(2) 3 Ω
(4) Remains the same, remains the same
(3) 6 Ω
(4) 2 Ω
Space for Rough Work
1
2
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 8.
12. If a solution turns blue litmus red, its pH is likely to be
The given figure shows the magnetic field pattern in a region. Which of the following is the correct relation regarding the strength of the magnetic fields BA, BB and BC?
BA
9.
Sample Paper
BB
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 13
13. The brown surface of copper becomes black on heating in air. When hydrogen gas is ed over this black surface, it turns
BC
(1) BA = BB < BC
(2) BA = BB = BC
(3) BA = BB > BC
(4) BA < BB < BC
(1) Brown
(2) Green
(3) Red
(4) White
14. 3MnO2 + bAl ⎯→ 3Mn + aAl2O3 + Heat The values of a and b for the above reaction are
The V - I graph of a metal cube is shown in the figure. If the length of the conductor is 2 m, then resistivity of the material is
V (V)
(1) 4, 2 respectively
(2) 2, 4 respectively
(3) 2, 2 respectively
(4) 4, 3 respectively
15. During the electrolytic refining of copper, the anode is made up of
30 20
(1) Pure copper
(2) Impure copper
10
(3) Graphite
(4) Pure tin
5 10 15
16. Apart from sodium, which element among the following is kept immersed in kerosene oil?
I (A)
(1) 10 Ωm
(2) 2 Ωm
(1) Magnesium
(3) 4 Ωm
(4) 5 Ωm
(3) Potassium
(2) Zinc (4)
Lead
17. How many molecules of water of crystallisation are present in one molecule of gypsum?
10. Which of the following is correct? (1) Magnetic force depends on the mass of charge (2) Magnetic force acts in the direction of current (3) Magnetic force does work on a moving charge
(1) 10
(2) 2
1 2
(4) 5
(3)
(4) Magnetic force can accelerate a charge
18. Which of the following is a sulphide ore?
11. Anode mud is formed during (1) Anodising
(2) Electrolytic refining
(1) Haematite
(2) Bauxite
(3) Galvanization
(4) Corrosion
(3) Cinnabar
(4) Magnetite
Space for Rough Work
2
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
19. xPb(NO3)2 ⎯→ xPbO + yNO2 + zO2
25. The initiating step in photosynthesis is the
The values of x, y and z respectively are
(1) Formation of ATP and NADPH
(1) 2, 2, 4
(2) 2, 4, 1
(2) Reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose
(3) 2, 4, 2
(4) 1, 2, 1
(3) Photolysis of water
20. If a solution turns pH paper yellow, then the pH range of the solution is (1) 1 - 2
(2) 5 - 6
(3) 8 - 9
(4) 7 - 8
(4) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll 26. Stomatal pores open, when the guard cells (1) Swell up due to endosmosis (2) Shrink due to exosmosis
21. The cork cells become impervious to water, gases and nutrients due to the deposition of (1) Lignin
(2) Suberin
(3) Pectin
(4) Oxalic acid
(3) Swell up due to exosmosis (4) Shrink due to endosmosis 27. The very first enzyme to act on starch, present in food, is secreted by
22. A cell organelle ‘X’, responsible for synthesis of proteins is produced by a structure ‘Y’, which is located inside another organelle ‘Z’. Identify X, Y and Z.
(1) Pancreas
(2) Gastric glands
(3) Small intestine
(4) Salivary glands
28. Sphygmomanometer reading of a patient as mentioned by a doctor is 140/60. 140 and 60 represent
(1) X-RER, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Mitochondria (2) X-RER, Y-Golgi apparatus, Z-Nucleus
(1) Normal systolic and diastolic pressure
(3) X-Nucleolus, Y-Nucleus, Z-RER
(2) Abnormal systolic and diastolic pressure
(4) X-Ribosome, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Nucleus (3) Normal systolic and abnormal diastolic pressure
23. Which of the following elements is necessary to prevent goitre? (1) Calcium
(2) Iron
(3) Iodine
(4) Copper
(4) Abnormal systolic and normal diastolic pressure 29. The contraceptive device copper-T, is placed in the
24. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) Vena cava carries deoxygenated blood
(1) Vagina
(2) Uterus
(3) Ovary
(4) Fallopian tube
30. Which part of the brain is damaged if a person is unable to maintain the balance and posture of his body?
(2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys (3) Bile juice is stored in the gall bladder (4) Both kidneys are present in the pelvic region at the same height
(1) Cerebrum
(2) Medulla
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Pons
Space for Rough Work
3
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Sample Paper
SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS 31. If k, l and m are the zeroes of the polynomial 6x3 + 5x2 + 4x – 1, then the value of k–1 + l–1 + m–1 is (1)
1 4
(2)
37. What percent of 15 is 15 percent of 1?
5 6
4 (4) 4 6 32. Mohit textiles marks their clothes up by 60% subsequently offering a discount of 30%. The net profit made by them after offering the discount is
(1) 7.5%
(2) 10%
(3) 12%
(4) 15%
33. If (1 + cotA – cosecA) (1 + tanA + secA) = then the possible value of x is (2)
(3) 1
(4) 2
is
(3) 0.0001
(4) 1
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 25
(4) 30
39. The average weight of Anil, Mohan and Sohan is 45 kg. If the average weight of Anil and Mohan is 40 kg and that of Mohan and Sohan is 43 kg, then the weight of Mohan is
2x2,
(1) 31 kg
(2) 34 kg
(3) 35 kg
(4) 38 kg
40. In an acute angled ΔABC, if sin(A + B – C) =
1
3 , 2
then angle C is equal to
2
34. In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is a point on side BC such that BD
(2) 0.001
38. The number of integral divisors of 720 is
(3)
(1) 0
(1) 0.01
(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°
41. If a five digit number is written as pqrst, then the difference of pqrst and prsqt will always be divisible by
1 BC . The ratio of AD2 and AB2 4
(1) 11 : 16
(2) 7 : 9
(1) 9
(2) 18
(3) 9 : 16
(4) 13 : 16
(3) 45
(4) All of these
35. The number of different positive integers lying between 1015 and 1016, the sum of whose digits is equal to 2 is
42. HCF of three numbers taken pairwise is 2. If the LCM of the three numbers is 59976, then the product of the three numbers taken together is
(1) 16
(2) 24
(1) 2592
(2) 46656
(3) 36
(4) 64
(3) 31426
(4) 239904
36. For getting a ‘less than’ Ogive, we plot the graph of
43. The average of n non-zero numbers is zero. Out of them at least, how many numbers may be greater than zero?
(1) Cumulative frequency with upper limits (2) Cumulative frequency with lower limits (3) Cumulative frequency with classmark
(1) 0
(2) 1
(4) Cumulative frequency with range
(3) n/2
(4) n – 1
Space for Rough Work
4
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
44. If a and b are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = x 2 – 6x + 8, then the value of a 1 b –1 a 1
a 1 b –1 b –1
49. If f(x) is a quadratic polynomial such that f(2) = – 3 and f( –2) = 21, then the coefficient of x in f(x) is
is
3 (1) 2
5 (2) 2
(3) 5
(4)
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) – 6
(4) – 3
50. ABCD is a rectangle in which AB = 2AD. P and Q are mid-points of AD and AB respectively. If BP and DQ intersect at R, then the ratio of the area of quad BRDC and ar(Δ BAP)
10 3
45. Two ogives for a particular data, one ‘less than’ type and other ‘more than’ type, intersect each other at a point P(a, b). The value of b is
(1) 1 : 5
(2) 4 : 2
(3) 8 : 3
(4) 7 : 2
(1) Median of the data 51. If 0 < θ < 90°, sinθ + cosθ = p and q
(2) Frequency of the data (3) Half the frequency of the data
2p p2 1
,
then q is equal to
(4) Half the median of the data 46. Which of the following can be the HCF and LCM of two numbers?
(2) cosθ + secθ
(3) secθ + cosecθ
(4) cosecθ – cosθ
52. ABCD is a trapezium. If diagonals AC and BD intersect at O such that perimeter of ΔAOB = 30 cm
(1) HCF = 15, LCM = 155 (2) HCF = 24, LCM = 1008 (3) HCF = 24, LCM = 252
and perimeter of ΔCOD = 15 cm, then
(4) HCF = 22, LCM = 422 47. If cosθ + sinθ =
(1) sinθ – cosθ
ar( AOB ) ar( COD )
is
2 cos , then cosθ – sinθ is equal
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4
to (1)
2
(2)
(3)
2 tan
(4)
2 sin
53. If A B
2 cot
48. If X axis and Y axis form two triangles Δ1 and Δ2 with lines 3x + y = 3 and 2x + y = 7 respectively, then the ratio of areas of Δ1 to Δ2 is
, then (tanA + 1) (tanB + 1) is equal to 2
(1) cosecA secA (2) 2 + cosecA + secA
(1) 7 : 3
(2) 6 : 7
(3) 2 cosecA secA
(3) 6 : 49
(4) 36 : 7
(4) 2 + cosecA secA Space for Rough Work
5
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 54. The value of
Sample Paper
sec 1 sec 1 is sec 1 sec 1
58. If p
1 q , then for p > 0 p
(1) 2/cosecθ
(2) cosecθ
(1) q = 0
(3) 2cosecθ
(4) sinθ
(2) q ≥ 0
55. If a person sold his watch for Rs. 144 and got a percentage of profit equal to the cost price, then the cost price of the watch is (1) Rs. 80
(2) Rs. 88
(3) Rs. 84
(4) Rs. 83
(3) –2 < q < 2 (4) q ≤ –2 59. If ABC is a triangle right angled at B and M, N are the mid-points of AB and BC, then 4(AN2 + CM2) is equal to
56. If x + y = 1, then the value of x3 + y3 + 3xy is (1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) 3
(2) 216 – 1
(3) 216 + 1
(4) 7 × 233
(2) 5 AC2
(3) 6 AC2
(4) AC2
60. The ratio of inradius to the circumradius of an equilateral triangle is
57. If a certain number divides 232 + 1, then which of the following is also divisible by the same number? (1) 296 + 1
(1) 4 AC2
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1: 2
(3) 2 : 5
(4)
2: 3
Part – II
Mental Ability & General Knowledge SECTION - A : MENTAL ABILITY This section contains 40 multiple choice questions numbered 61 to 100. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 63. Which is the incorrect number in the following sequence?
61. If LADI is coded as 52, then TERG is coded as (1) 100
(2) 50
(3) 25
(4) 75
2, 5, 10, 18, 26, 37, 50
62. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, then when will Friday be?
(1) 18
(2) 26
(3) 37
(4) 50
64. If SITA is coded as UGVY, then MONK is coded as
(1) Two days after today (2) Three days after today
(1) OMLI
(2) OMPI
(3) Tomorrow
(3) OKLI
(4) OMKI
(4) Day after tomorrow
Space for Rough Work
6
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
65. If JAIPOR is coded as 019658, then PIAJRO is coded as
Directions (Q.70 & Q.71) : (i) P + Q means P is the son of Q
(1) 690185
(ii) P – Q means P is the wife of Q
(2) 691805
(iii) P × Q means P is the brother of Q
(3) 691080
(iv) P ÷ Q means P is the mother of Q
(4) 691085
(v) P = Q means P is the sister of Q
66. In a certain code, "Beautiful I peacock saw" is given by "ACDE", "girl beautiful nature" is given by "AFB", "worship saw peacock" is given by "GEC" and "Saw I beautiful" is given by "EDA". Which of the following is the code for "Peacock I beautiful"?
70. What does A + C – B mean? (1) B is the father of A (2) B is the son of A
(1) AEG
(2) GAE
(3) B is the uncle of A
(3) GDA
(4) CDA
(4) B is the brother of A
67. A clock is showing 3:30 pm. If at that instant, the minute hand of the clock is pointing in the North-East direction, then the hour hand is pointing towards
71. What does A = C + B mean? (1) A is the aunt of B (2) A is the daughter of B
(1) North
(2) West
(3) North-West
(4) South-West
(3) A is the niece of B (4) A is the sister of B
68. In a row of trees, a tree is the fifteenth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in the row? (1) 28
(2) 29
(3) 30
(4) 31
72. If A is 60 m South-West of B and C is 60 m South-East of the B, then C is in which direction w.r.t. A?
69. How many squares does the following figure contain?
(1) East
(2) West
(3) North-East
(4) South
73. In the following number sequence, how many such even numbers are there which are exactly divisible by their immediate preceding number but not exactly divisible by their immediate following number? 4782679365024681 (1) 17
(2) 19
(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 21
(4) 27
(3) 3
(4) 1
Space for Rough Work
7
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Sample Paper
Directions (Q.74 & Q.75) : Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure from among the four given alternatives.
76. Rajesh is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 49. If Sumit's rank is seventeenth from the last, what is Rajesh's rank from the start? (1) 14th
(2) 24th
(3) 26th
(4) 27th
Directions (Q.77 to Q.79) : The following questions are based on the diagram given below :
74.
15
25
(1)
(2)
9
11 7
16 2 5
12 13
21
(i) Rectangle represents males (3)
(ii) Triangle represents engineers
(4)
(iii) Circle represents urban (iv) Square represents doctors 77. Who among the following is a male engineer who is not an urban resident?
75.
(1) 16
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 13
78. Who among the following is an urban male doctor? (1)
(2)
(1) 7
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 13
79. Who among the following is only a doctor but not a male nor hails from urban area? (3)
(4)
(1) 13
(2) 11
(3) 15
(4) 12
Space for Rough Work
8
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
80. Find the missing number.
84. DTP : FWT : : STD : ?
7 286
16
(2) V WI
(3) UVE
(4) UWF
85. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'PRAKASHAN' each of which have as many letters between them as in the English Alphabet?
34
142
(1) UWH
? (1) 68
(2) 70
(3) 66
(4) 62
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
86. Find the odd one out.
Directions (Q.81 & Q.82) : Insert the correct missing number from the choices given below :
(1) Mango
(2) Banana
(3) Apple
(4) Carrot
87. Complete the series.
81.
3
4
5
6
7
8
7
8
9
39
52
?
?
82.
(1) 61
(2) 67
(3) 72
(4) 84
2
4
6
3
5
?
8
24
54
(1)
(2)
(3) (1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 12
83. Weaver : Cotton : : Tailor : ? (1) Fibre
(2) Thread
(3) Clothes
(4) Food
(4)
Space for Rough Work
9
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Sample Paper
Directions (Q.88 to Q.90) : Given below are three positions of the same cube having numbers 1 to 6 written on its six faces. Answer questions 88 to 90 after a careful study of the three positions of the cube.
93. The missing value in given arrangement is
3 8 12 4 1
3
6
5
4
4
16
40
21
?
4 6
1
88. Which number is on the face opposite to 6? (1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 1
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3
(3) 42
(4) 36
15, 25, 40, 65, ?, 195 (1) 115
(2) 110
(3) 90
(4) 105
95. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Shikha is to the left of Pinky. Manisha is to the right of Pinky. Anu is between Pinky and Manisha. Who would be second from right in the photograph?
90. The number on the face opposite to 1 is (1) 5
(2) 52
94. Find the missing number.
89. The bottom face in the first figure is numbered (1) 6
(1) 50
(1) Manisha
(2) Pinky
(3) Shikha
(4) Anu
96. If in a certain language: white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called green, green is called black, black is called violet, and violet is called orange. What would be the colour of human blood in that language?
91. A and B can do a piece of work in 9 days, B and C can do it in 12 days and A and C can do it in 18 days. If A, B and C work together, then the work would be finished in (1) 6 days
(2) 7 days
(1) Red
(2) Green
(3) 8 days
(4) 4 days
(3) Yellow
(4) Blue
97. If 'p' stands for division, 'q' for multiplication, 'r' for addition and 's' for subtraction, then the value of 18p6q3r2s15p3 is
92. A clock is correctly set at 8 a.m. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. When the clock indicates 3 p.m. on the following day, the actual time is (1) 2:50 p.m.
(2) 3:10 p.m.
(1) 15
(2) 11
(3) 2:48 p.m.
(4) 2:40 p.m.
(3) 8
(4) 6
Space for Rough Work
10
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Directions (Q.98 to Q.99) : These questions follow a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Z shows the manner in which the folder paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by the four answer figures. Out of these four you have to choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Z.
99.
X
Y
Z
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
98.
X
Y
Z
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
100. Having reached the place of meeting 20 minutes before 6:30 p.m., Prachi found herself 55 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. What was the scheduled time of meeting? (1) 7:00 p.m.
(2) 7:05 p.m.
(3) 7:15 p.m.
(4) 7:25 p.m.
SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE This section contains 20 multiple choice questions numbered 101 to 120. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 101. Where is the National Physical Laboratory located?
104. The Parliament of USA is known as
(1) Ahmedabad
(2) Pune
(1) Federal Assembly
(2) Diet
(3) New Delhi
(4) Lucknow
(3) Knesset
(4) Congress
102. Which canal connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea? (1) Erie Canal
(2) Indira Gandhi Canal
(3) Panama Canal
(4) Suez Canal
105. Kourou city is well known for (1) Port facilities (2) Racial problems (3) Satellite launching
103. Who was the last Mughal emperor of India?
(4) Volcanic eruptions
(1) Nadir Shah
106. Man ed from the food-gathering stage to the food-producing stage in the
(2) Aurangzeb (3) Bahadurshah Zafar
(1) Paleolithic age
(2) Neolithic age
(4) Jehangir
(3) Chalcolithic age
(4) Mesolithic age
Space for Rough Work
11
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Sample Paper
107. "Satyameva Jayate" has been taken from
114. During the British era, which city was the capital of India before Delhi?
(1) Mundak upanishad (2) Rig veda (3) Katho upanishad
(1) Patna
(2) Lucknow
(3) Calcutta
(4) Bombay
115. Bismillah Khan was a legendary _______ Maestro.
(4) Atharva veda 108. The forest area known as 'silent valley' is in (1) Kerala
(2) Uttarakhand
(3) Nagaland
(4) Karnataka
(1) Sitar
(2) Shehnai
(3) Tabla
(4) Bansuri
116. Our national anthem was first sung in the year
109. Martyrs' day is celebrated on
(1) 1911
(2) 1913
(3) 1936
(4) 1935
117. The author of book "The Discovery of India" is
(1) 24 January
(2) 26 January
(1) B.R. Ambedkar
(2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) 28 January
(4) 30 January
(3) J.L. Nehru
(4) S.C. Bose
118. Which Greek goddess of victory is depicted on the Olympic medals?
110. Angkor Wat temples are found in (1) Nilgiri Hills
(2) Belgium
(1) Athena
(2) Aphrodite
(3) Cambodia
(4) Palestine
(3) Nike
(4) Hera
111. The outermost layer of the Sun is (1) Corona
(2) Lithosphere
(3) Medulla
(4) Photosphere
119. The first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold medal is (1) Vijender Singh (2) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
112. Who is called the 'Father of Indian Cinema'? (1) Ramanand Sagar
(3) Abhinav Bindra
(2) Amitabh Bachchan
(4) Khashaba Jadav
(3) Dada Saheb Phalke (4) Prithviraj Kapoor
120. Who won the first Indian Grand prix Formula One world championship?
113. When is the Independence day of Pakistan celebrated? (1) January 25
(2) August 14
(1) Jenson Button
(3) August 15
(4) August 16
(3) Michael Schumacher (4) Sebestian Vettel
Space for Rough Work
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(2) Mark Webber
NATIONAL
TALENT HUNT EXAM
2012 Science & Mathematics Mental Ability & General Knowledge
Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sector-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075. Ph.: (011) 47623456
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Time : 2 Hours
MM : 480
Part – I
Science & Mathematics SECTION - A : SCIENCE Choose the correct answer : 1.
The I-V graph of four resistors A, B, C and D is given below. If all the four resistors are of the same length and same material, then the resistor having the minimum cross-sectional area is
3.
4.
A B C
I
D 5.
2.
(1) A
V (2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Bio-gas is rich in (1) Methane
(2) Propane
(3) Ethane
(4) Butane
_______ between the different layers of water in the ocean is used to produced energy in OTEC plants. (1) Tidal energy
(2) Temperature difference
(3) Waves
(4) Depth
An AC generator can be converted into a DC generator by replacing (1) Its armature with a coil (2) Its concave magnets
A wire PQ of length l and area of cross-section A is connected to a supply of V volt as shown in the figure given below.
(3) Its slip rings with split rings (4) Two brushes with four brushes 6.
V
If an alternating current changes its direction after 1 s, then its frequency is 120 (1) 50 Hz (2) 45 Hz
every
P
Q
A
(3) 60 Hz 7.
V If the length of the wire is doubled and its area of cross-section halved, then the reading of the ammeter and the voltmeter respectively
(4) 70 Hz
In the following circuit, the equivalent resistance between points A and B is
1.5
1.5
1
A 3
(1) Increases, increases (2) Increases, remains the same
3
(3) Decreases, remains the same
B (1) 1.5 Ω
(2) 3 Ω
(4) Remains the same, remains the same
(3) 6 Ω
(4) 2 Ω
Space for Rough Work
1
2
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 8.
12. If a solution turns blue litmus red, its pH is likely to be
The given figure shows the magnetic field pattern in a region. Which of the following is the correct relation regarding the strength of the magnetic fields BA, BB and BC?
BA
9.
Sample Paper
BB
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 13
13. The brown surface of copper becomes black on heating in air. When hydrogen gas is ed over this black surface, it turns
BC
(1) BA = BB < BC
(2) BA = BB = BC
(3) BA = BB > BC
(4) BA < BB < BC
(1) Brown
(2) Green
(3) Red
(4) White
14. 3MnO2 + bAl ⎯→ 3Mn + aAl2O3 + Heat The values of a and b for the above reaction are
The V - I graph of a metal cube is shown in the figure. If the length of the conductor is 2 m, then resistivity of the material is
V (V)
(1) 4, 2 respectively
(2) 2, 4 respectively
(3) 2, 2 respectively
(4) 4, 3 respectively
15. During the electrolytic refining of copper, the anode is made up of
30 20
(1) Pure copper
(2) Impure copper
10
(3) Graphite
(4) Pure tin
5 10 15
16. Apart from sodium, which element among the following is kept immersed in kerosene oil?
I (A)
(1) 10 Ωm
(2) 2 Ωm
(1) Magnesium
(3) 4 Ωm
(4) 5 Ωm
(3) Potassium
(2) Zinc (4)
Lead
17. How many molecules of water of crystallisation are present in one molecule of gypsum?
10. Which of the following is correct? (1) Magnetic force depends on the mass of charge (2) Magnetic force acts in the direction of current (3) Magnetic force does work on a moving charge
(1) 10
(2) 2
1 2
(4) 5
(3)
(4) Magnetic force can accelerate a charge
18. Which of the following is a sulphide ore?
11. Anode mud is formed during (1) Anodising
(2) Electrolytic refining
(1) Haematite
(2) Bauxite
(3) Galvanization
(4) Corrosion
(3) Cinnabar
(4) Magnetite
Space for Rough Work
2
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
19. xPb(NO3)2 ⎯→ xPbO + yNO2 + zO2
25. The initiating step in photosynthesis is the
The values of x, y and z respectively are
(1) Formation of ATP and NADPH
(1) 2, 2, 4
(2) 2, 4, 1
(2) Reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose
(3) 2, 4, 2
(4) 1, 2, 1
(3) Photolysis of water
20. If a solution turns pH paper yellow, then the pH range of the solution is (1) 1 - 2
(2) 5 - 6
(3) 8 - 9
(4) 7 - 8
(4) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll 26. Stomatal pores open, when the guard cells (1) Swell up due to endosmosis (2) Shrink due to exosmosis
21. The cork cells become impervious to water, gases and nutrients due to the deposition of (1) Lignin
(2) Suberin
(3) Pectin
(4) Oxalic acid
(3) Swell up due to exosmosis (4) Shrink due to endosmosis 27. The very first enzyme to act on starch, present in food, is secreted by
22. A cell organelle ‘X’, responsible for synthesis of proteins is produced by a structure ‘Y’, which is located inside another organelle ‘Z’. Identify X, Y and Z.
(1) Pancreas
(2) Gastric glands
(3) Small intestine
(4) Salivary glands
28. Sphygmomanometer reading of a patient as mentioned by a doctor is 140/60. 140 and 60 represent
(1) X-RER, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Mitochondria (2) X-RER, Y-Golgi apparatus, Z-Nucleus
(1) Normal systolic and diastolic pressure
(3) X-Nucleolus, Y-Nucleus, Z-RER
(2) Abnormal systolic and diastolic pressure
(4) X-Ribosome, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Nucleus (3) Normal systolic and abnormal diastolic pressure
23. Which of the following elements is necessary to prevent goitre? (1) Calcium
(2) Iron
(3) Iodine
(4) Copper
(4) Abnormal systolic and normal diastolic pressure 29. The contraceptive device copper-T, is placed in the
24. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) Vena cava carries deoxygenated blood
(1) Vagina
(2) Uterus
(3) Ovary
(4) Fallopian tube
30. Which part of the brain is damaged if a person is unable to maintain the balance and posture of his body?
(2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys (3) Bile juice is stored in the gall bladder (4) Both kidneys are present in the pelvic region at the same height
(1) Cerebrum
(2) Medulla
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Pons
Space for Rough Work
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Sample Paper
SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS 31. If k, l and m are the zeroes of the polynomial 6x3 + 5x2 + 4x – 1, then the value of k–1 + l–1 + m–1 is (1)
1 4
(2)
37. What percent of 15 is 15 percent of 1?
5 6
4 (4) 4 6 32. Mohit textiles marks their clothes up by 60% subsequently offering a discount of 30%. The net profit made by them after offering the discount is
(1) 7.5%
(2) 10%
(3) 12%
(4) 15%
33. If (1 + cotA – cosecA) (1 + tanA + secA) = then the possible value of x is (2)
(3) 1
(4) 2
is
(3) 0.0001
(4) 1
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 25
(4) 30
39. The average weight of Anil, Mohan and Sohan is 45 kg. If the average weight of Anil and Mohan is 40 kg and that of Mohan and Sohan is 43 kg, then the weight of Mohan is
2x2,
(1) 31 kg
(2) 34 kg
(3) 35 kg
(4) 38 kg
40. In an acute angled ΔABC, if sin(A + B – C) =
1
3 , 2
then angle C is equal to
2
34. In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is a point on side BC such that BD
(2) 0.001
38. The number of integral divisors of 720 is
(3)
(1) 0
(1) 0.01
(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°
41. If a five digit number is written as pqrst, then the difference of pqrst and prsqt will always be divisible by
1 BC . The ratio of AD2 and AB2 4
(1) 11 : 16
(2) 7 : 9
(1) 9
(2) 18
(3) 9 : 16
(4) 13 : 16
(3) 45
(4) All of these
35. The number of different positive integers lying between 1015 and 1016, the sum of whose digits is equal to 2 is
42. HCF of three numbers taken pairwise is 2. If the LCM of the three numbers is 59976, then the product of the three numbers taken together is
(1) 16
(2) 24
(1) 2592
(2) 46656
(3) 36
(4) 64
(3) 31426
(4) 239904
36. For getting a ‘less than’ Ogive, we plot the graph of
43. The average of n non-zero numbers is zero. Out of them at least, how many numbers may be greater than zero?
(1) Cumulative frequency with upper limits (2) Cumulative frequency with lower limits (3) Cumulative frequency with classmark
(1) 0
(2) 1
(4) Cumulative frequency with range
(3) n/2
(4) n – 1
Space for Rough Work
4
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
44. If a and b are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = x 2 – 6x + 8, then the value of a 1 b –1 a 1
a 1 b –1 b –1
49. If f(x) is a quadratic polynomial such that f(2) = – 3 and f( –2) = 21, then the coefficient of x in f(x) is
is
3 (1) 2
5 (2) 2
(3) 5
(4)
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) – 6
(4) – 3
50. ABCD is a rectangle in which AB = 2AD. P and Q are mid-points of AD and AB respectively. If BP and DQ intersect at R, then the ratio of the area of quad BRDC and ar(Δ BAP)
10 3
45. Two ogives for a particular data, one ‘less than’ type and other ‘more than’ type, intersect each other at a point P(a, b). The value of b is
(1) 1 : 5
(2) 4 : 2
(3) 8 : 3
(4) 7 : 2
(1) Median of the data 51. If 0 < θ < 90°, sinθ + cosθ = p and q
(2) Frequency of the data (3) Half the frequency of the data
2p p2 1
,
then q is equal to
(4) Half the median of the data 46. Which of the following can be the HCF and LCM of two numbers?
(2) cosθ + secθ
(3) secθ + cosecθ
(4) cosecθ – cosθ
52. ABCD is a trapezium. If diagonals AC and BD intersect at O such that perimeter of ΔAOB = 30 cm
(1) HCF = 15, LCM = 155 (2) HCF = 24, LCM = 1008 (3) HCF = 24, LCM = 252
and perimeter of ΔCOD = 15 cm, then
(4) HCF = 22, LCM = 422 47. If cosθ + sinθ =
(1) sinθ – cosθ
ar( AOB ) ar( COD )
is
2 cos , then cosθ – sinθ is equal
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4
to (1)
2
(2)
(3)
2 tan
(4)
2 sin
53. If A B
2 cot
48. If X axis and Y axis form two triangles Δ1 and Δ2 with lines 3x + y = 3 and 2x + y = 7 respectively, then the ratio of areas of Δ1 to Δ2 is
, then (tanA + 1) (tanB + 1) is equal to 2
(1) cosecA secA (2) 2 + cosecA + secA
(1) 7 : 3
(2) 6 : 7
(3) 2 cosecA secA
(3) 6 : 49
(4) 36 : 7
(4) 2 + cosecA secA Space for Rough Work
5
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 54. The value of
Sample Paper
sec 1 sec 1 is sec 1 sec 1
58. If p
1 q , then for p > 0 p
(1) 2/cosecθ
(2) cosecθ
(1) q = 0
(3) 2cosecθ
(4) sinθ
(2) q ≥ 0
55. If a person sold his watch for Rs. 144 and got a percentage of profit equal to the cost price, then the cost price of the watch is (1) Rs. 80
(2) Rs. 88
(3) Rs. 84
(4) Rs. 83
(3) –2 < q < 2 (4) q ≤ –2 59. If ABC is a triangle right angled at B and M, N are the mid-points of AB and BC, then 4(AN2 + CM2) is equal to
56. If x + y = 1, then the value of x3 + y3 + 3xy is (1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) 3
(2) 216 – 1
(3) 216 + 1
(4) 7 × 233
(2) 5 AC2
(3) 6 AC2
(4) AC2
60. The ratio of inradius to the circumradius of an equilateral triangle is
57. If a certain number divides 232 + 1, then which of the following is also divisible by the same number? (1) 296 + 1
(1) 4 AC2
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1: 2
(3) 2 : 5
(4)
2: 3
Part – II
Mental Ability & General Knowledge SECTION - A : MENTAL ABILITY This section contains 40 multiple choice questions numbered 61 to 100. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 63. Which is the incorrect number in the following sequence?
61. If LADI is coded as 52, then TERG is coded as (1) 100
(2) 50
(3) 25
(4) 75
2, 5, 10, 18, 26, 37, 50
62. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, then when will Friday be?
(1) 18
(2) 26
(3) 37
(4) 50
64. If SITA is coded as UGVY, then MONK is coded as
(1) Two days after today (2) Three days after today
(1) OMLI
(2) OMPI
(3) Tomorrow
(3) OKLI
(4) OMKI
(4) Day after tomorrow
Space for Rough Work
6
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
65. If JAIPOR is coded as 019658, then PIAJRO is coded as
Directions (Q.70 & Q.71) : (i) P + Q means P is the son of Q
(1) 690185
(ii) P – Q means P is the wife of Q
(2) 691805
(iii) P × Q means P is the brother of Q
(3) 691080
(iv) P ÷ Q means P is the mother of Q
(4) 691085
(v) P = Q means P is the sister of Q
66. In a certain code, "Beautiful I peacock saw" is given by "ACDE", "girl beautiful nature" is given by "AFB", "worship saw peacock" is given by "GEC" and "Saw I beautiful" is given by "EDA". Which of the following is the code for "Peacock I beautiful"?
70. What does A + C – B mean? (1) B is the father of A (2) B is the son of A
(1) AEG
(2) GAE
(3) B is the uncle of A
(3) GDA
(4) CDA
(4) B is the brother of A
67. A clock is showing 3:30 pm. If at that instant, the minute hand of the clock is pointing in the North-East direction, then the hour hand is pointing towards
71. What does A = C + B mean? (1) A is the aunt of B (2) A is the daughter of B
(1) North
(2) West
(3) North-West
(4) South-West
(3) A is the niece of B (4) A is the sister of B
68. In a row of trees, a tree is the fifteenth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in the row? (1) 28
(2) 29
(3) 30
(4) 31
72. If A is 60 m South-West of B and C is 60 m South-East of the B, then C is in which direction w.r.t. A?
69. How many squares does the following figure contain?
(1) East
(2) West
(3) North-East
(4) South
73. In the following number sequence, how many such even numbers are there which are exactly divisible by their immediate preceding number but not exactly divisible by their immediate following number? 4782679365024681 (1) 17
(2) 19
(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 21
(4) 27
(3) 3
(4) 1
Space for Rough Work
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Sample Paper
Directions (Q.74 & Q.75) : Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure from among the four given alternatives.
76. Rajesh is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 49. If Sumit's rank is seventeenth from the last, what is Rajesh's rank from the start? (1) 14th
(2) 24th
(3) 26th
(4) 27th
Directions (Q.77 to Q.79) : The following questions are based on the diagram given below :
74.
15
25
(1)
(2)
9
11 7
16 2 5
12 13
21
(i) Rectangle represents males (3)
(ii) Triangle represents engineers
(4)
(iii) Circle represents urban (iv) Square represents doctors 77. Who among the following is a male engineer who is not an urban resident?
75.
(1) 16
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 13
78. Who among the following is an urban male doctor? (1)
(2)
(1) 7
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 13
79. Who among the following is only a doctor but not a male nor hails from urban area? (3)
(4)
(1) 13
(2) 11
(3) 15
(4) 12
Space for Rough Work
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Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
80. Find the missing number.
84. DTP : FWT : : STD : ?
7 286
16
(2) V WI
(3) UVE
(4) UWF
85. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'PRAKASHAN' each of which have as many letters between them as in the English Alphabet?
34
142
(1) UWH
? (1) 68
(2) 70
(3) 66
(4) 62
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
86. Find the odd one out.
Directions (Q.81 & Q.82) : Insert the correct missing number from the choices given below :
(1) Mango
(2) Banana
(3) Apple
(4) Carrot
87. Complete the series.
81.
3
4
5
6
7
8
7
8
9
39
52
?
?
82.
(1) 61
(2) 67
(3) 72
(4) 84
2
4
6
3
5
?
8
24
54
(1)
(2)
(3) (1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 12
83. Weaver : Cotton : : Tailor : ? (1) Fibre
(2) Thread
(3) Clothes
(4) Food
(4)
Space for Rough Work
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Sample Paper
Directions (Q.88 to Q.90) : Given below are three positions of the same cube having numbers 1 to 6 written on its six faces. Answer questions 88 to 90 after a careful study of the three positions of the cube.
93. The missing value in given arrangement is
3 8 12 4 1
3
6
5
4
4
16
40
21
?
4 6
1
88. Which number is on the face opposite to 6? (1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 1
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3
(3) 42
(4) 36
15, 25, 40, 65, ?, 195 (1) 115
(2) 110
(3) 90
(4) 105
95. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Shikha is to the left of Pinky. Manisha is to the right of Pinky. Anu is between Pinky and Manisha. Who would be second from right in the photograph?
90. The number on the face opposite to 1 is (1) 5
(2) 52
94. Find the missing number.
89. The bottom face in the first figure is numbered (1) 6
(1) 50
(1) Manisha
(2) Pinky
(3) Shikha
(4) Anu
96. If in a certain language: white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called green, green is called black, black is called violet, and violet is called orange. What would be the colour of human blood in that language?
91. A and B can do a piece of work in 9 days, B and C can do it in 12 days and A and C can do it in 18 days. If A, B and C work together, then the work would be finished in (1) 6 days
(2) 7 days
(1) Red
(2) Green
(3) 8 days
(4) 4 days
(3) Yellow
(4) Blue
97. If 'p' stands for division, 'q' for multiplication, 'r' for addition and 's' for subtraction, then the value of 18p6q3r2s15p3 is
92. A clock is correctly set at 8 a.m. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. When the clock indicates 3 p.m. on the following day, the actual time is (1) 2:50 p.m.
(2) 3:10 p.m.
(1) 15
(2) 11
(3) 2:48 p.m.
(4) 2:40 p.m.
(3) 8
(4) 6
Space for Rough Work
10
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Directions (Q.98 to Q.99) : These questions follow a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Z shows the manner in which the folder paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by the four answer figures. Out of these four you have to choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Z.
99.
X
Y
Z
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
98.
X
Y
Z
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
100. Having reached the place of meeting 20 minutes before 6:30 p.m., Prachi found herself 55 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. What was the scheduled time of meeting? (1) 7:00 p.m.
(2) 7:05 p.m.
(3) 7:15 p.m.
(4) 7:25 p.m.
SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE This section contains 20 multiple choice questions numbered 101 to 120. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 101. Where is the National Physical Laboratory located?
104. The Parliament of USA is known as
(1) Ahmedabad
(2) Pune
(1) Federal Assembly
(2) Diet
(3) New Delhi
(4) Lucknow
(3) Knesset
(4) Congress
102. Which canal connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea? (1) Erie Canal
(2) Indira Gandhi Canal
(3) Panama Canal
(4) Suez Canal
105. Kourou city is well known for (1) Port facilities (2) Racial problems (3) Satellite launching
103. Who was the last Mughal emperor of India?
(4) Volcanic eruptions
(1) Nadir Shah
106. Man ed from the food-gathering stage to the food-producing stage in the
(2) Aurangzeb (3) Bahadurshah Zafar
(1) Paleolithic age
(2) Neolithic age
(4) Jehangir
(3) Chalcolithic age
(4) Mesolithic age
Space for Rough Work
11
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012
Sample Paper
107. "Satyameva Jayate" has been taken from
114. During the British era, which city was the capital of India before Delhi?
(1) Mundak upanishad (2) Rig veda (3) Katho upanishad
(1) Patna
(2) Lucknow
(3) Calcutta
(4) Bombay
115. Bismillah Khan was a legendary _______ Maestro.
(4) Atharva veda 108. The forest area known as 'silent valley' is in (1) Kerala
(2) Uttarakhand
(3) Nagaland
(4) Karnataka
(1) Sitar
(2) Shehnai
(3) Tabla
(4) Bansuri
116. Our national anthem was first sung in the year
109. Martyrs' day is celebrated on
(1) 1911
(2) 1913
(3) 1936
(4) 1935
117. The author of book "The Discovery of India" is
(1) 24 January
(2) 26 January
(1) B.R. Ambedkar
(2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) 28 January
(4) 30 January
(3) J.L. Nehru
(4) S.C. Bose
118. Which Greek goddess of victory is depicted on the Olympic medals?
110. Angkor Wat temples are found in (1) Nilgiri Hills
(2) Belgium
(1) Athena
(2) Aphrodite
(3) Cambodia
(4) Palestine
(3) Nike
(4) Hera
111. The outermost layer of the Sun is (1) Corona
(2) Lithosphere
(3) Medulla
(4) Photosphere
119. The first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold medal is (1) Vijender Singh (2) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
112. Who is called the 'Father of Indian Cinema'? (1) Ramanand Sagar
(3) Abhinav Bindra
(2) Amitabh Bachchan
(4) Khashaba Jadav
(3) Dada Saheb Phalke (4) Prithviraj Kapoor
120. Who won the first Indian Grand prix Formula One world championship?
113. When is the Independence day of Pakistan celebrated? (1) January 25
(2) August 14
(1) Jenson Button
(3) August 15
(4) August 16
(3) Michael Schumacher (4) Sebestian Vettel
Space for Rough Work
12
(2) Mark Webber
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